2008-11-17, 01:43 AM
shouri Wrote:I'd still like to point out that all of you have done a fantastic job of beating around the proper answer to the question. You've all stated that 1^inf is undefined, which i won't argue. It's true after all. But the question is, why isn't it 1 when it seems logical that the answer SHOULD be 1?
"Because it's undefined" is really a bad attempt at getting around it. You guys continue to preach this, but never give a proper answer to why logic doesn't make sense. I'll refer the original poster to my earlier post on page 1 for the proper answer.
P.S. oh, and also because its undefined >> [/sarcasm]
Well, the issue is that even if you multiply 1^infinity, the number you have will be.... 1^infinity.
0.99999999999999999999999^infinity will go towards 0.00000000000000000000001^infinity after some time, and in the end towards 0, but it will never be zero, and the number we get isn't something we can write. it's like the last part of 1/3 in decimal, or 1/7 for that matter.